Singular Sex and the Three in One
Frequent commenter in these here parts, Dan Trabue and others brought up the discussion of homosexuality and Scripture. It is said, where two or three or gathered there will be four or five opinions on theological matters and that seemed to be the case. As this conversation too often brings up lots of heat and little light, I’m going to put most of it below the fold.
Dan offers his journey on this matter, writing (I’ve added some small amount of formatting):
- I grew up conservative – strongly so. I held to the traditional view on homosexuality for the first half of my life.
- I grew away from that position not because I wanted to validate a sin, but because I came to believe the Bible did not support opposition to gay marriage and, in fact, I found support for gay marriage to be the more Godly position. To be honest, this was pretty much against my will, as I was STRONGLY opposed to the normalization of homosexuality.
- Like many others, I assumed the Bible was chock full of verses opposing homosexuality. Why else would churches spend so much time and energy opposing it??
- When challenged to actually study and see what the Bible has to say on the topic, I was quite surprised.
- The Bible has nothing to say on marriage as it relates to our gay/lesbian friends – pro or con. Not one single word.
- Jesus has nothing to say about homosexuality at all. Not one single word.
- The OT, which I thought was replete with condemnations of homosexuality, didn’t. It has two verses. Leviticus 18 and Leviticus 20. Both say, “man shall not lie with man.” Chapter 20 goes on to say “If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them shall be put to death for their abominable deed”
- This made me wonder two things,
- “If we don’t believe the second half of that verse (kill ‘em), why do we believe the first half?”
- Could it be that they’re talking about something other than “just” homosexuality?
- The two or three verses that people quote from Paul’s letters (not romans), all have some version of the Greek words, “Malakoi” – which translate to “weak” or “soft” – and “Arsenokoitai,” – which translates to “abusers of themselves” or some equivalent. Hardly a strong case for opposition to homosexuality.
- Finally, Romans 1 – which at the time was my one stronghold in THE WHOLE Bible which I could point to and say, “Well, at least THIS passage condemns homosexuality!!” The pertinent verses in Romans says:
For this reason, God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural, in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indecent acts and receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.
For what it’s worth, the verses leading up to this passage are talking about worshiping false gods. Which sorta raised a red flag for me, “this seems out of context…”
In deeper study, I discovered that sexual immorality – boy prostitution, temple priestesses, etc – was part and parcel of the worship of other gods mentioned in those passages.
Furthermore, Romans talks about the men “abandoning natural relations,” and perhaps that verse more than any others (not that there are many others) started the change in my position. “Well,” said Dan, “for gay folk, ‘natural relations’ IS with the same gender…”
Ultimately it came down to the pure dearth of biblical support for such opposition to homosexuality and, even in the handful of verses that folk could point to, the case was not compelling and, in fact, supported folk pursuing “natural relations.”
As briefly as I can put it, that’s my reasoning for why this anti-homosexual kind of guy switched teams.
I’ve a few questions to put to Dan’s point of view, but to be more fair, I’ll lay out my admittedly still evolving position as well.
- In Fr Honeycutt’s book, which I can’t lay my hands on too quickly so I’ll paraphrase, he recounts a venerable priest giving a homily on sex. That priest asked those listening to raise their hands if they were married. He then in turn asked those who weren’t to raise their hands. He said, the teaching of Scripture and the Church was that the first group could, and the second couldn’t. Simple enough. [as an aside: Bishop Dmitri (of Texas and the South in the OCA) also teaches (quite firmly) that masturbation (solo sex?) is forbidden to both groups.]
- If you sin be it sexual in nature or not, as do we all (and I for one “am first” in that respect), that is a matter for your counselor, your spiritual adviser, and/or your confessor, often your priest. Homosexuality is not an exception in this matter. Homosexuality, as with other sins, is essential a pastoral matter.
- [aside: A note, in the Orthodox liturgy we profess every week, that we participate in the Eucharist as sinners, “of whom I am first”, the first in this matter does not mean that I am the worst sinner in the world, just the worst from my perspective, i.e., from my viewpoint I am the worst, just not a global viewpoint. That is, my sins are not worse than say Saddam’s or Hitler’s … just that to me they loom far larger.]
- Our culture and civilization currently is awash in sex. This is problematic inasmuch as we participate and don’t hold ourselves apart as resident aliens. A Roman philosopher noted in the 2nd century one of the most striking things about Christians was their amazing sexual restraint. I think this is no longer the case, which is a condemnation we all must bear.
Dan’s argument seems to hinge on two main points, one is that we are inconsistent with our dealing with Leviticus … and that via Romans noted above (and I guess his tradition allows him to cast aside say, Clement, the Didache and other later writers).
The problem with Leviticus is one of “casting aside”. But is it all that inconsistent. In the Anchor Bible series commentary, Jacob Milgrom in a extensive 3 volume series concludes on this matter that the ruling of a death sentence for homosexuals in particular applies only in the Holy Land in the presence of the temple. His argument of that is extensively documented and I won’t repeat it here. The salient point is that the Temple is destroyed and America, for example, is not Canaan. In a nearby verse, the prohibition and abomination of child sacrifice (Moloch worshipers) is called for. Dan, I think, would not cast that aside. So, in deciding to cast both parts (death and the notion that homosexuality is wrong) he is being inconsistent by also wanting to keep the idea that child sacrifice is evil (I don’t know if he would keep the death sentence in that case, I however might).
It is true that Christians cast much of Leviticus aside, but it is not done randomly. For example, we don’t keep the sacrificial system, because Christ was our sacrificial Lamb. We don’t keep the injunction to separate … things such as cotton and flax. Why? Well, examine the reason why that was done. I tend to think the separation laws were a recapitulation in daily praxis of the separation in Genesis 1. That is, a way in daily praxis of calling us daily the theology truths presented in Genesis 1, God separated light from dark, water from earth and so on. God created and on. Separation of dairy and meat can act to remind us of those truths. Do we still need that reminder, or do we have other reminders we keep instead, e.g., fasting on Wednesday and Friday to remember Christ’s arrest and death or attending Church on the day of resurrection and not on the Sabbath. I could continue with some of the other Levitical laws but …
My point is, in order to cast aside the prohibition of homosexuality from Leviticus, it seems to me one first has to confront and understand the theological reasons in the first place of putting those rules there. There are a lot of sexual rules, of which homosexuality is one. Who we can marry within family are included as well. The theological reasons these laws were put in place had nothing at all to do with modern ideas of genetic disease prevention. But, more importantly, the reasons those prohibitions were put in placed should be addressed if you want to set them aside. For my part, I don’t actually have an understanding of why those rules were put there … but then again I’m not casting them aside so I don’t need to do so.
Dan’s reason for entertaining homosexuality as a non-sinful possibility is also one of natural law (and I’m guessing “reasonableness”). Natural law is a sticky wicket. Dan would use natural law to allow homosexuality but deny it to the paedophile or (here I’m guessing) the polygamist as well. Polygamy was present in the Old Testament in abundance but implicitly if not explicitly rejected in the New. The problem here is that natural law, i.e., people are naturally homosexual is not sufficient (or one might say men “naturally” would like to have sex with as many young nubile women as they can … or be either polygamous or serially monogamous at best). Paedophiles and psychopaths have natural tendencies that are normally viewed as remaining sinful even if they are “natural” to some men and (likely less) women. The question then is how does one distinguish the psychopath’s natural tendency, murder, as sinful but the homosexuals natural one as not. This leads us to reasonableness.
Another common argument, which I’m hoping to anticipate from Dan is that it isn’t reasonable that nice well adjusted loving homosexuals in monogamous relationships be branded sinners for their desire to have their relationship with their beloved blessed by the church and not be “branded” a sin. In the somewhat more secular scientific world, “reasonable” is not a criteria for deciding truth. Physicists do not consider if a theory describing particle interactions or other physical description is reasonable. The scientific consideration is whether it is right. Quantum mechanics specifically (and General and Special Relativity as well) are not reasonable. They are however extremely good at describing the actual physical (unreasonable) universe in which we live. As members of the Christian faith community, we take as a matter of course that the testimony of trusted people carries epistemic freight, e.g., that the witness of the Apostles is true. For 19+ centuries the apostolic traditions of our church have always held the unreasonable notion that the binary equation on sex is righteous, i.e., that married men and women alone may engage in sex without sin. This is not reasonable. So what? It is not reasonable that a man should arise from death on the third day. Reasonable has never been a criteria for either the world or for Christian ethics.
Filed under: Christianity • Conservative • Ethics & Morality • Homosexuality • Mark O. • Orthodox • Protestantism • Religion
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A couple of quick comments:
He said, the teaching of Scripture and the Church was that the first group could, and the second couldn’t. Simple enough.
Sure. Which is why I’m a big supporter of marriage. For all adults who want marriage – gay or straight.
Jacob Milgrom in a extensive 3 volume series concludes on this matter that the ruling of a death sentence for homosexuals in particular applies only in the Holy Land in the presence of the temple.
The problem with all this line of reasoning (some have divided the OT rules down to three categories: Ceremonial, Universal and… I forget the third category – Israel-specific, I believe, although that’s not the right wording), is that it’s extrabiblical. Milgrom might say, “Well, the ‘Men laying with men’ part is universal – it applies to us all. But the ‘they must be killed’ part, well, that was just for Israel…” But that would just be Milgrom’s best guess. It’s a hunch.
The Bible makes no such distinctions between the rules. This is a problem for the literalists out there who want to claim to take the Bible literally but can only do so by arbitrarily writing off those parts that they don’t want to agree with.
Why ought we listen to Milgrom’s arbitrary dividing lines and not Dan’s?
My point is, in order to cast aside the prohibition of homosexuality from Leviticus, it seems to me one first has to confront and understand the theological reasons in the first place of putting those rules there. There are a lot of sexual rules, of which homosexuality is one.
Says you. The Bible never ever not once speaks directly of homosexuality. Not one time. And certainly never speaks directly of gay marriage. Not one time. Ever.
You think these 4-6 verses (in ALL the Bible) are an all-inclusive prohibition on all homosexual behavior. But the Bible doesn’t make that distinction. You (and the majority of the church) does.
It’s extrabiblical reasoning.
Dan,
I wouldn’t cast Jacob Milgrom’s reasoning as un- or extra-Biblical or arbitrary out of hand. I think his reasoning is not extra-biblical.
An example. We all agree that “love thy neighbor” is perhaps the primary teaching of Leviticus (see for example Hillel or Jesus remarks on that). However, that is not certainly not clear from its placement or its context. It derives from extra-Biblical reasoning. Reasoning based on bible, context, and so on is not a bad thing. It’s what we do.
And yes, as a general principle, I think before you set aside a warning or rule, you need to understand why it is there. I don’t see any sense in doing otherwise.
Why? Because it’s “reasonable”? What is the basis this particular “extra-Biblical” reasoning.
Just to set things in perspective for you, I’m Orthodox, not a Sola Scriptura Protestant. Bible is not the sole basis for argument for me. You have to confront church tradition, liturgy and the teachings of the Fathers as well as Scripture.
Yes, you do think his reasoning is not extrabiblical. Your thinking so does not make it so, though.
Your hunch is that Milgrom is correct to think those verses apply to us today and mean that all homosexuality is sinful. But the Bible, as I’ve repeatedly noted – does not say that anywhere. It is an interpretation of 4-6 verses (in the WHOLE Bible) that SEEM to possibly be talking about homosexuality.
By the way, are you saying that you think that you and Milgrom can correctly translate the perfect meaning of “men laying with men,” to mean literally any and all kinds of homosexual behavior including faithful loving marriages, but you don’t think that we can understand Jesus correctly when we note that he says, “Woe to you rich”?
That is, when the writer of Leviticus says “men laying with men,” it should be taken literally and therefore apply to any gay situations, but that when Jesus says, “Woe to you who are rich,” that we ought NOT take that literally because, umm, we just oughtn’t?
This in spite of the dozens – hundreds? of verses in that vein for Jesus as compared to the 1-3 verses in the gay vein? (I’m considering counting that number down to just the two Leviticus passages and the one Romans passage – the entire biblical argument against gay marriage – since really those Pauline epistles don’t say “homosexual,” they say “soft,” and “abusers of themselves” which a reasonable person can’t be expected to translate “gay.”)
I’m typing this fast as I’m out of town and out of time, hope my point makes sense, as I’m rushing…
Dan,
Likewise, for you as well. The idea that if two people disagree about hermeneutic and interpretation that the claim that one party is “extra-biblical” and the other is not is not useful. We are all using the same things here. Our disagreement is hermeneutic and interpretation.
You, yourself, have admitted to extra-biblical influence, i.e., “naturalism” … not me. I’ve pointed out some of the common flaws with reversion to naturalism arguments which you have not remarked on.
How many verses are against child sacrifice? Jesus never speaks of it, yet you don’t affirm that child sacrifice being sinful is necessarily extra-biblical reasoning. So, I’m unclear on why you keep referring to the number of verses as such an important feature.
Could it be that Jesus referred to “the rich” more than sexual matters because 1st century Israel was more concerned with wealth than sex, unlike perhaps our age?
HA! funny.
I don’t suppose you were serious in suggesting that we might not be as materialistic, wealth-oriented as 1st Century Israel?
I recognize that ancient Rome had its orgies of consumption and materialism, but I think anyone would be hard-pressed to find any age in history that is as materialism-oriented as the West in the last 100 years – insofar as it being a widespread problem from the Halls of Power to the streets of Urbania to the slums of Suburbania to the fields of Rurality.
You think otherwise?
Likewise, for you as well [ie, my position being extrabiblical]. The idea that if two people disagree about hermeneutic and interpretation that the claim that one party is “extra-biblical” and the other is not is not useful. We are all using the same things here. Our disagreement is hermeneutic and interpretation.
Certainly my position on gay marriage is extrabiblical. I have not claimed anything else. The difference is, I’m not saying that the Bible (in all its 3-ish verses that SEEM to touch on homosexuality) HAS a position on gay marriage specifically, while your “side” does.
The Religious Right (including Dan, at one time) emphatically state that the God’s Own Self has decried gay marriage. That God finds gay marriage repugnant and repulsive.
This, in spite of the lack of biblical support for that position.
No. I make no such claim to be speaking for God.
I’m saying that I find marriage to be a good thing, supported by the Bible.
I’m saying that those who point to the 3-ish passsages in the Bible that might appear to be a blanket condemnation for homosexuality fail to convince me of their position.
I’m saying, failing to find any support in the Bible for opposition to homosexuality in general (or heterosexuality in general), I find the healthiest place to express our sexuality to be within the sanctity of marriage.
Could I be wrong? It’s always a possibility, seeing as how I’m not God. But it’s the most convincing biblical position as I understand God’s Word. Anytime the Bible is silent on an issue, we have to do our best to figure out what the best position is to take. But at least we can be honest and admit it when it’s extrabiblical, instead of presuming to speak for God saying, “I know best what God meant by those three isolated verses.”
Seems to me.
If I may just toss something in here.
Genesis 2:24 (New International Version)
New International Version (NIV)
24 For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh.
(Emphasis mine.) Positive support for heterosexual marriage (not just “generic” marriage). Nothing at all in support of homosexual marriage. Would you be arguing that the Bible being silent on a subject is tacit approval, equal with its being vocally approving of something else?
Wow. I have to say, I’ve been on the fence on this one and was happy to hear Dan’s thoughts on this. I moved from a rural upstate-NY town where this wasn’t really an issue and after marrying I have lived outside of Philadelphia, PA for almost 20 years now.
What I have learned over the years is that heterosexual or homosexual we are all sinners, and each individual has the ability to live a good life no matter what their sexual preference is. I’ve know gays and lesbians that have been in long-term relationships. I call a few of them dear friends. It has been a personal struggle of mine.
I just try to think WWJD. And he would want me to love them. Up to this point I don’t know that I’ve understood the verses you’ve shared and am now enlightened more that perhaps they don’t speak of the abomination that I’ve heard reference of.
Thank you for a very well thought out discussion from both sides that I will probably come back and read again.
Thanks, Violette. It’s nice when we can have reasoned discussions and remain Christian about it, even when we disagree.
Doug said:
Positive support for heterosexual marriage (not just “generic” marriage). Nothing at all in support of homosexual marriage.
As I noted, there is nothing in the Bible one way or the other about gay marriage. Why would there be? There was no concept at the time of the notion of gay marriage. It was outside their experience.
There’s no commentary on crack cocaine in the Bible nor on waterboarding nor on many other topics. The silence is not an indicator of support nor opposition, but merely silence.
Some things we have to muddle through ourselves by God’s grace and with God’s Spirit leading the way.
I see a difference here vs. your examples. It’s not just a matter of “outside their experience”. God gave them the definition of marriage, physically and spiritually. He could have easily added two words — “wife or husband” — and been done with it. Instead, over thousands of years, the only type of marriage ever spoken of by God, in more than 4-6 verses I’d imagine, is a heterosexual one.
Noting things that had not been invented or thought of at the time is a poor analogy. God would have, of course, has to explain them before discussing them. No explanation needed for same-sex marriage. Jesus could have corrected Israel’s view of marriage, as he did with divorce, but the Jews of the day needed correcting on divorce, as the disciples reaction to the teaching demonstrates. They thought same-sex marriage was wrong, and on that count Jesus was silent. Unless you think he was being coy on the subject, given His opportunities to correct it, it appears He didn’t think they needed correcting.
Simply saying that since the Bible is silent means we just “muddle through” is to ignore the context of that silence. Indeed, I think silence has context.
Dan,
Yes, the Bible says nothing about modern technology or opines on topics that were not present in their day. What makes you consider human sexuality a modern invention?
He could have easily added two words — “wife or husband” — and been done with it. Instead, over thousands of years, the only type of marriage ever spoken of by God, in more than 4-6 verses I’d imagine, is a heterosexual one.
God COULD have said in the Bible, “Take care of my creation. Don’t pollute.” as surely this was a correct way to live and people would have a clear understanding of polluting (streams, the earth, your neighbor’s yard, etc), but God didn’t.
God COULD have said “Don’t commit genocide,” or “Don’t torture” as people were certainly aware of the meaning of these ideas and as they were and always have been certainly wrong, but God didn’t.
God COULD have said all kinds of things that aren’t recorded in the Bible that were quite clear then. But God did not always do so.
The Bible is not the be all/end all of God’s Word. We have to work out God’s Word in many ways that aren’t covered in the Bible. That’s our reality.
Why doesn’t the Bible (especially in the OT) tell us directly that genocide is wrong? Why, in fact, does it appear that God sometimes COMMAND genocide? Because that is where the people were with their understanding of God. Incomplete – as is our understanding of God.
And sometimes, we picture God in ways that don’t fully reflect God’s reality. Being human, it’s hard to get around that.
The Bible in the OT sometimes does not reject polygamy as less than ideal (or even sinful). There is even at least one verse where God SAYS that God is the one who gave David all his wives.
Why is that?
Perhaps the people back then were not ready to think of monogamous marriage. It was beyond their scope of thinking.
Perhaps the people back then were not ready for the idea that genocide is always wrong – it was beyond their comprehension that they could live in such a way as to never “need” to commit genocide.
Perhaps the people back then were not prepared to understand the godliness and goodness of committed gay relationships.
I don’t know, I wasn’t there.
What I do know is that the mere absence of support for a specific activity does not in any way equal opposition to that specific activity.
Surely we can agree on that?
he Bible says nothing about modern technology or opines on topics that were not present in their day. What makes you consider human sexuality a modern invention?
No where did I say that human sexuality is a modern invention. What I suggested was the notion of gay marriage is a modern notion.
Do you dispute this? Do you think there was some point in history where gays could freely admit they were gay, much less marry?
What IS new is the widespread realization that being gay or lesbian is something you’re born with. That it is the way a person is by nature. And, given that, that our gay and lesbian brothers and sisters can be part of loving, committed relationships and not necessarily be hedonistic pleasure seekers, but merely people wanting to live lives as they were created.
What I do know is that the mere absence of support for a specific activity does not in any way equal opposition to that specific activity.
Surely we can agree on that?
We can. Of course, that’s not what I asserted.
You keep giving examples of what God didn’t say. I’m talking about what God did say. He said, “This is marriage” and never once changed His tune.
In the 21st century, you’re saying that since gay folks are born that way, then it’s all OK. That’s the way they are by nature, and that appears to be your rational for why it would be OK for them to marry. It’s genetic, natural.
And alcoholism and violence are also genetic in nature. Hey, it’s just natural.
Welcome to the Sinful World(tm). Not everything genetic is ipso facto good. I’m not saying everything genetic is it’s ipso facto evil either, but I would at least like to take the genetic issue off the table.
I’d suggest genetic ought to remain on the table UNLESS we have some reason to assume that the condition is sinful. Some folk are born genetically unable to walk, but that’s no reason to assume that being unable to walk is sinful.
What reason do we have to think that being gay or lesbian is more like a negative, such as being violent, and less like a neutral, such as being heterosexual? You have three verses that you can point to. I don’t buy them as sufficiently clear. Lacking anything more substantive, I opt for marriage and commitment.
I’m talking about what God did say. He said, “This is marriage” and never once changed His tune.
God also DID say that God gave David all his wives and NEVER ONCE does God say that there is anything wrong with polygamy, shall we embrace polygamy, by your reasoning?
You have already noted that God dealt with humanity as it was and moved it along towards him. Indeed, I can agree with that. But I have yet to hear (or maybe I’ve missed it in this whole discussion, I may have) why these verses don’t mean what they say, and are rather God’s way of moving us along.
You’ve compared the number of verses to other topics. You’ve claimed that these verses, in fact, don’t actually speak about homosexuality. You’ve denied that it should be taken literally, but have only done so by complaining that some don’t take some other phrase literally enough. (Bit of a non sequitur.)
I gotta’ wonder what you think those verses do mean. As Mark has pointed out, you’re kinda’ going against 19 centuries of biblical scholars when you do that. I have no problem with bucking the trend, but you really ought to have an ironclad reason for it. Handwaving it away and equating your to theirs as all just “extra-Biblical” seems less than wise, if not arrogant.
I have yet to hear why these verses don’t mean what they say, and are rather God’s way of moving us along.
For approximately the same reason why some here have said that when Jesus said “Woe to you who are rich,” he didn’t mean what he actually said. They find reasons elsewhere and support that logically makes sense to them as to why they think Jesus didn’t mean what he literally said. The thing is, there is a lot (A LOT) more support for Jesus actually meaning what he said than there is for the literal interpretation for Lev. 18/20 and Romans 1.
I have not given an extensive defense of my position because we sort of backed into this discussion from another discussion. Mostly, I don’t find it convincing within the text and context that these three passages are talking about homosexuality in general. They seem to be dealing with other actions more along the lines of sexually abusive acting out associated with the worship of false gods.
We know that some passages that people refer to are dealing with boy prostitutes who were sexually oppressed as part of temple worship for certain gods. In context, these few verses seem to be dealing with something more along those lines than homosexuality in general.
Leviticus 18, for instance, begins:
You shall not do as they do in the land of Egypt, where you once lived, nor shall you do as they do in the land of Canaan, where I am bringing you; do not conform to their customs.
And then it lists various sexually inappropriate activities. Mostly dealing with incest/family sexuality, but also including banning sex with women who are menstruating and telling us not to sacrifice children to Molech. And then, “men shall not lay with men.”
It just sounds like it’s dealing with some societally-specific practices, as well as dealing with some more universal rules. I’m not convinced by that one passage (or its mate in chapter 20) that it is talking about gay marriage.
Dan,
You represent my position. I didn’t exegete the statement “Woe to the rich” ( as you didn’t ask, but I’ll also ask in return do you also try to keep somber and never laugh, I wonder), but Luke 4. I never said none of Jesus statements about the rich are to be taken on face value. You said there were “hundreds”, but chose a particularly poor one if that was your impression. Also, you didn’t choose that one by accident, as you were trying to rebut my notion that repentance our attitude toward God and not social issues were at the root of Jesus ministries. I had noted in two Gospels (and in Acts) the ministries of Jesus and the Apostles begin with “repent”. On that, I still maintain you are wrong, that repentance is more important in following Christ than a vow of poverty or aiding/helping the poor.
And when you remark
That’s really stepping in it, so to speak. Being heterosexual, married, raising children, having a family, and so on is not neutral. It is good. Very good. Which is sort of the point.
I had noted at one time, if you want to set aside some (but as you observe) not all these injunctions, it seems a good idea to know the theological reason for them in the first place. But you didn’t think that necessary, oddly enough. And you’re right, none of those verses are dealing with gay marriage, but it is on the other hand, not too unlikely that they are dealing with male homosexual congress, which seems implicitly part of gay marriage.
I’m curious about one thing, you had said you are Anabaptist. Is your position on this consonant with your church’s? If not, how is your preaching/teaching differently viewed?
For all the other instances of sexual acting out, the Leviticus passage says, “You shall not have carnal relations…” or “You shall not have intercourse…” but with verse 22 (following the verse about sacrificing children to Molech) it says, “You shall not lie with a male as with a woman…” Why would it not use the same language as in the other instances?
Even with the bestiality verse, it uses “You shall not have carnal relations…”
It just doesn’t sound like it’s talking about a general prohibition against gay behavior – including gay marriage – but rather some specific action specific to the day, perhaps something related to the temple worship?
I’m not saying it couldn’t be taken the way you’re taking it/I used to take it. I’m saying I am not convinced that is what it’s talking about.
And given what we know of God and humanity and the lack of any corraborating evidence in the Bible, I am, in fact, convinced that a loving, committed relationship is NOT what it those solitary two verses in all the OT are talking about.
Why do you think most people don’t believe the verse three verses prior isn’t meant for folk today? God NEVER EVER said that “OK, forget what I said about no sex when women are menstruating, it’s okay now!!” That never happens and yet, most folk don’t believe that is a verse that applies to us today.
Similarly, I don’t think “men laying with men” – whatever it means – is talking about committed loving relationships.
Mark said:
On that, I still maintain you are wrong, that repentance is more important in following Christ than a vow of poverty or aiding/helping the poor.
AAAAHHH! You’re doing it again, Mark (I’m saying this with a laugh in my voice, to answer your question, although I’m unsure of what the question about being somber and laughing is about)!
I never said that repentance is less important than a vow of poverty or aiding the poor. Nor did I state it the other way: That aiding the poor is more important than repentance.
I have simply not said nor suggested that. Please, debate my words, not something else, it wastes time.
That’s really stepping in it, so to speak. Being heterosexual, married, raising children, having a family, and so on is not neutral. It is good. Very good. Which is sort of the point.
You’re sliding off into stuff I haven’t said again. I indicated that being born homosexual is a neutral thing – not sinful nor unsinful, just a reality. Just as being born heterosexual is a neutral thing.
You and I both agree that marriage and family is a good thing. I just happen to believe that it is good for gay and straight. But I didn’t say that marriage and family is a moral neutral.
Read my words, please.
As to the anabaptist question:
I would hazard to guess that most anabaptist churches (Amish, Mennonites, Church of the Brethren) are not open to gay marriage. Some are.
My particular church – which is Baptist by name, rather than specifically anabaptist (we just swing a bit towards anabaptism, which is where I am) – has gay deacons and members, holds marriage ceremonies for gay and straight and otherwise embrace all who wish to follow God, as well as those who struggle at it.
Dan,
For almost a thousand years, the Christian church held that large decisions such as this were to be decided in the venue of Ecumenical council and then acceptance by the Church at large, that is those things decided by council and accepted by the Church were right and Godly. Orthodox and Catholic split in the 11th century because the Roman church rejected this.
I would suggest that the right and proper forum for proposing such matters is an Ecumenical council. But there is a matter of the healing of the schisms of our Church catholic to be gotten to before then.
Arius heresy, in part, was his decision that he had the vision and the authority to make up his own mind on matters theological … just like you and your church are doing. I don’t think that’s heresy in and of itself. I do think it is an error. St. Athanasius argued both against his heresy and his method.
Laughing? Luke 6:25 just after the statement on the poor.
OK. So isn’t the question of why important? I don’t get why you think it isn’t.
Exactly. But I did state it the other way. I emphatically insist that your attitude toward God, your penitence, your repentance is the most important thing (Lord have mercy on me a sinner). It is not of the same importance. It is the primary thing. Fear of God is the beginning of wisdom. It is the root.
Violet sent me the link here. I want to thank her. I have a blog where I discuss many issues pertaining to gay issues. I do not beleive that the bible was entended to be used the way people are using it today to discriminate and ban gay marriages.
I beleive the bible is a tool to guide people, but not the way people are using it today. I do not beleive that any book should have that much power.